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The Context of Romans 3

That Paul has the whole law in view is precisely why he keeps the phraseology of Romans 3:28 very general. ("For we maintain that a man is justified by faith apart from works of the Law"). He says "works of the law" not "works of ceremony" or "works of the ceremonial law," since his objective is to show that the WHOLE system of law in Israel must be set aside in order to make room for faith to justify a man.

In other words, "works of the law" are precisely what the phrase says - they are works performed in a system of law; works performed under a legal contract; works wherein legal payment is expected. The moral and ceremonial laws, as well as the civil laws of Israel, were all part of the legal system of the Old Covenant -- a legal system that had to be set aside in order to make room for the New Covenant, a system of grace.

We can see even more clearly the meaning of "works of the law" by examining its first occurrence in Romans 3:19-20. Here Paul says:

19 "Now we know that whatever the Law says, it speaks to those who are under the Law, so that every mouth may be closed and all the world may become accountable to God; 20 because by the works of the Law no flesh will be justified in His sight; for through the Law comes the knowledge of sin."

Notice the phrase "works of the Law" in verse 20. It is the same Greek phrase used in Romans 3:28 (ejvrgwn novmou). And since both phrases are in the same context, it would be natural to assume they mean the same thing.

What "Law" is Paul referring to in Romans 3:20? According to the immediate context, which begins in verse 9 and extends through verse 18, it is the Law found in the Psalms which convicts both Jew and Gentile in sin. This global conviction in sin is evident as Paul says in verse 9 that "both Jews and Gentiles are all under sin," and then proceeds to quote from seven different Psalms which show that the whole world is condemned in sin because of the Law found in the Psalms (5:9; 14:1-3; 10:7; 36:1; 53:1-4; 59:7; 140:3).

It is obvious, then, that the "Law" or "works of the law" cannot refer only to Jewish ceremonies, for the Psalms Paul cites do not refer to ceremonies but to the general laws of God which convict all men in sin. This conviction of sin is precisely why Paul closes in Romans 3:20 with the statement "...for through the Law comes the knowledge of sin." Conversely, there is no passage in the Bible which says that the ceremonial law convicts men in sin, let alone say that the ceremonial law could convict a Gentile in sin. No, the Law of Romans 3 refers to the WHOLE system of law and it is that Law which convicts men in sin.

Paul gives the same truth in Romans 5:20:

"The Law came in so that the transgression would increase; but where sin increased, grace abounded all the more."

As in Romans 3:20, here the Law serves the purpose of exposing sin. What Law is Paul referring to? According to the context it refers to the Law that came with Moses, as Paul says in verses 13-14: "for until the Law sin was in the world, but sin is not imputed when there is no law. 14 Nevertheless death reigned from Adam until Moses...," but Paul says nothing about this Law referring only to the ceremonial law. The context is clear that the Law refers to the whole law of Moses.

We see the same truth in Romans 2:17-23.

17 But if you bear the name "Jew " and rely upon the Law and boast in God, 18 and know His will and approve the things that are essential, being instructed out of the Law, 19 and are confident that you yourself are a guide to the blind, a light to those who are in darkness, 20 a corrector of the foolish, a teacher of the immature, having in the Law the embodiment of knowledge and of the truth, 21 you, therefore, who teach another, do you not teach yourself? You who preach that one shall not steal, do you steal? 22 You who say that one should not commit adultery, do you commit adultery? You who abhor idols, do you rob temples? 23 You who boast in the Law, through your breaking the Law, do you dishonor God?

Here Paul says that the Jews "rely on the Law and boast in God" (verse 17) and then in verses 21-22 Paul specifies that Law as the commands against "stealing" (verse 21); "adultery" (verse 22); and "idol worship" (verse 22). These three commands come from the Ten Commandments. "Stealing" and "adultery" represent the sixth and seventh commandment, while "idol worship" represents the first commandment.

We can see the same truth in Romans 4:3-4:

3 For what does the Scripture say? "Abraham believed God, and it was credited to him as righteousness." 4 Now to the one who works, his wage is not credited as a gift, but as what is due.

This is the controlling verse for much of what Paul says in Romans. These verses tell us that the principle issue at stake is one of "gift versus debt," or, as we have seen, "grace versus works." This is the fundamental principle in Paul's teaching, and those who miss it go off into many other irrelevant tangents.

Why can't "works of the law" justify a man? Is it because Jewish ceremonies are now obsolete and faith came to replace them? No, Jewish ceremonies NEVER saved any Jew. The real reason "works of the law" can't justify is that they are in a legal system devoid of grace. They come from the Old Covenant, a covenant which was based on law.

The grace of the Old Covenant had been squeezed out when Adam sinned against God. From then on, according to Paul in Romans 4:3-4, if one tries to base his justification on law, it would be just as if he were trying to put God into debt to pay him a wage. Paying wages to those who work is representative of a system devoid of grace. But Justification cannot be bought, since God owes no man anything. Therefore, justification cannot be given on a wage basis; rather, it must come by grace, initiated by faith in God. It was the New Covenant that brought grace back into the picture, and when it came it set aside the Old Covenant with its legal system of moral, ceremonial and civil laws.

(Note: Some of you are probably asking: "Well aren't we still supposed to obey the moral commands of the Old Testament?" That's a good question, and we'll answer that shortly. For now we still need to build the case concerning the nature of the Law).

Now, some may object to the above line of reasoning by pointing to Paul's continuing discussion about circumcision in Romans 4:9-12; claiming that since Paul specifies circumcision, then it is obvious that he is using the ceremonial law as the meaning of "works of the law."

But merely citing the ceremonial law does not mean that Paul is excluding every other kind of law. In order for someone to draw the conclusion that Paul is seeking to confine the meaning of "works of the law" to the ceremonial law, there would have to be some statement in Paul's writing, either here or elsewhere, which states that the moral law is excluded from "works of the law." As we have seen, that is simply not the case, especially since we see Paul eliminating the ceremonial law in other passages (Romans 3:9-20; 5:12-20; 7:7-8; 11:1-6).

The only conclusion that can be drawn from Paul's reference to circumcision in Romans 4:9-12 is that it serves as the most prominent example of the legal system of Judaism in which the people were attempting to put God in debt to pay them for their works. Only in this way can the controlling verse, Romans 4:4, coincide with the remaining context. The matter of "debt" and the matter of "circumcision" are not independent issues; rather, one relates directly to the other and must be explained in relation to the other. Unfortunately, in some apologist's dealing with the passage, the issue of "debt" is not even broached, let alone harmonized with circumcision.

Instead, they teach that Paul's argument in Romans 4 is based on the principle that the institution of New Testament sacraments is replacing the obsolete institution of Old Testament sacraments. But unless one understands the context of Romans 4, this is at best a half-truth, and ultimately it is a distortion of Paul's overall teaching. As noted above, circumcision is specified in Romans 4 only because it is the most prominent example of how the Jews were attempting to put God in debt to pay them with salvation.

Paul reinforces this meaning as he explains in Romans 4:10-16 that Abraham was given Justification by grace through faith long before he was circumcised, and thus he did not receive his Justification by placing God in debt. In effect, the example of circumcision comes in quite handy for Paul in his effort to teach the Jews about the concept of "grace versus debt."

10 How then was it credited? While he was circumcised, or uncircumcised? Not while circumcised, but while uncircumcised; 11 and he received the sign of circumcision, a seal of the righteousness of the faith which he had while uncircumcised, so that he might be the father of all who believe without being circumcised, that righteousness might be credited to them, 12 and the father of circumcision to those who not only are of the circumcision, but who also follow in the steps of the faith of our father Abraham which he had while uncircumcised. 13 For the promise to Abraham or to his descendants that he would be heir of the world was not through the Law, but through the righteousness of faith. 14 For if those who are of the Law are heirs, faith is made void and the promise is nullified; 15 for the Law brings about wrath, but where there is no law, there also is no violation. 16 For this reason it is by faith, in order that it may be in accordance with grace, so that the promise will be guaranteed to all the descendants, not only to those who are of the Law, but also to those who are of the faith of Abraham, who is the father of us all,

Notice the very general references to "Law" in these verses, showing us that Paul is referring to the whole legal system of Israel, the whole Mosaic law of moral, ceremonial and civil commands. For example, in verse 15 Paul says "for the Law brings about wrath, but where there is no law, there also is no violation." This is the same truth we saw in Romans 3:20 ("for through the Law comes the knowledge of sin") and Romans 5:20 ("The Law came in so that the transgression would increase; but where sin increased"), both of which were referring to the whole Law.

It is the same truth Paul teaches in Galatians 3:19: ("Why the Law then? It was added because of transgressions, having been ordained through angels by the agency of a mediator, until the seed would come to whom the promise had been made"). This is the context following Paul's teaching in Galatians 3:10-12 which shows us that Paul has in view the WHOLE law of Moses, moral as well as ceremonial. We'll see more of this later.

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