For example, in 1 Corinthians 4:7 (the very verse St. Augustine
used to show the true nature of Justification), Paul says:

"For who regards you as superior? What do you have that you
did not receive? And if you did receive it, why do you boast as
if you had not received it?"
Notice the same accusation against the Corinthians concerning their
"boasting" that Paul used against the Jews in Romans 2-4
when he was speaking about their self-aggrandizing behavior. In
four passages, Romans 2:17; 2:23; 3:27 and 4:2 Paul uses the word
"boasting." He does so because the Jews were boasting
that because they merely possessed the Law of Moses that God owed
them salvation. Now, in the Corinthian letter, we see that the Gentiles
began to think the same way about the Christian religion, thinking
that somehow, because of their own efforts, they earned what they
had received. The problems for the Corinthians in this regard are
enormous. Almost every chapter of the epistle is an indictment against
their boastful pride.
We next see Paul giving the same teaching to the Gentiles at Ephesus.
In Ephesians 2:8-9 he writes:
"For by grace you have been saved through faith;
and that not of yourselves, it is the gift of God; 9 not
as a result of works, so that no one may boast."
Notice again the same emphasis on "boasting" in the context
of "grace versus works." Paul is not writing to Jews,
but to Gentiles, since in the surrounding verses he addresses them
directly. In Ephesians 2:1-5 he writes:
1 "And you were dead in your trespasses and sins, 2 in which
you formerly walked according to the course of this world, according
to the prince of the power of the air, of the spirit that is now
working in the sons of disobedience. 3 Among them we too all formerly
lived in the lusts of our flesh, indulging the desires of the
flesh and of the mind, and were by nature children of wrath, even
as the rest.... 11 Therefore remember that formerly you, the Gentiles
in the flesh, who are called "Uncircumcision " by the
so-called "Circumcision," which is performed in the
flesh by human hands-- 12 remember that you were at that time
separate from Christ, excluded from the commonwealth of Israel,
and strangers to the covenants of promise, having no hope and
without God in the world."
Paul continues this same theme in another epistle written mainly
to Gentiles. In Titus 3:5-7 he writes:
"He saved us, not on the basis of deeds which we
have done in righteousness, but according to His mercy,
by the washing of regeneration and renewing by the Holy Spirit,
6 whom He poured out upon us richly through Jesus Christ our Savior,
7 so that being justified by His grace we would
be made heirs according to the hope of eternal life."
This passage is even more significant than the others since Paul
doesn't use the common wording "works of the law" or "works"
or "law," but a new clause is added to the Justification
dictionary: "deeds which we have done in righteousness."
The Greek wording is "oujk ejx ejvrgwn tw:n ejn dikaiosuvnh
aJ; ejpoihvsamen hJmei:V" which literally translates as "not
by works of righteousness which we did." It couldn't be any
clearer that St. Paul is including moral works in his regimen of
things which do not justify, since "works of righteousness"
can hardly be understood as referring to the ceremonial law. It
must refer, as the Council of Trent taught, to "his own works
which are done either by his own natural powers, or through the
teaching of the Law."
So again, we see why the Council of Trent addressed the "works
of the law" issue by teaching that it referred to the whole
law. The reason: because the Gentiles have just as much of a problem
in thinking that God owes them salvation as the Jews. In fact,
THAT is the perennial problem of all mankind -- in his pride he
thinks that that God both owes him a living and salvation. But
Paul clearly teaches that such is not the case. Paul sums this
up very well in Romans 11:35: "For who has known the mind
of the Lord, or who became his counselor? 35 Or who has
first given to Him that it might be paid back to him again?
Now, some may object that the whole Judaizing matter became obsolete
after St. Paul's time when the Temple was destroyed and it was no
longer possible to practice biblical Judaism. Christians and Jews
became polarized against each other and lost sight of their common
heritage.
But in answer we say that the principles learned from that experience
remained. That is why, for example, Paul keeps going back to the
experiences of Jewish unbelief in the Old Testament as the examples
from which the Gentile churches must learn to have faith.
Just as Paul goes back to the Jews of Elijah's time in Romans 11
as an example of people who sought works rather than grace, so Paul
does, for example, in 1 Cor 10:1-11 in order to warn the Corinthians
not to fall into the same mind-set as the Jews.
What was that mind-set? From the surrounding context of the Corinthian
epistle we find that the Corinthians were falling into the same
sins of pride and boasting as the Jews, thinking that somehow they
were owed what they were receiving from God because of their great
knowledge and piety (cf., 1 Cor 3:18-22; 1 Cor 4:7-8).
Hence, twice in 1 Cor 10, in verses 6 and 11, Paul says that the
stories about Jewish unbelief were written in the Old Testament
precisely to serve as examples to the Church of our day so that
we wouldn't fall into the same trap. The "trap" was that
the Jews had all the accouterments of God's presense (v. 1-4: baptism,
spiritual food and drink, the rock of Christ following them, etc)
but verse 5 says "MOST of them God was not well-pleased with,
and they were laid low in the wilderness."
So it seems that the "Jewish problem" was not, in essence,
a reliance on rituals, but a warped mentality which believed that
just because God blesses you means that he owes you, and that because
of His obligation toward you then you are secure forever no matter
what you do.
And isn't that the problem with the Gentiles too? How can we deny
it when Paul says that it is the case? And if it is, then that is
the reason the "Jewish problem" will never die, and that
is the reason the New Testament is as relevant today as it was 2000
years ago.
But aren't we supposed to obey the moral law?
So now let's answer the question we posed earlier: If the moral
law is included with the ceremonial law as that which condemns mankind,
how does that square with the fact that we are supposed to obey
the moral commands of the Old Testament, but not obey the ceremonial
commands?
The answer is very simple. We are not obeying the moral laws
of the Old Covenant. We are obeying the principles
of the moral laws found in the Old Covenant. More than that, we
are obeying the much improved moral laws, which God placed in
the New Covenant. The New Covenant of Jesus Christ borrows from
the good laws of the Old Covenant and makes them better. As Hebrews
8:6-7 says:
"But now he hath obtained a better ministry, by how much also
he is a mediator of a better testament which is established on better
promises. 7 For if that former had been faultless, there should
not indeed a place have been sought for a second."
That is why, for example, we find Jesus saying in Matthew 5:21
"You have heard it was said 'You shall not commit murder,'
but I say unto you that everyone who is even angry with his brother
shall be liable for judgment." Jesus is taking the principle
of the Old Covenant law and expanding on it for those who will
be His followers in the New Covenant. In the New Covenant, Jesus
is our Lawgiver and Judge (James 4:12). He is the one who gives
us our ceremonial, moral and civil laws. In order to do so, He
must set aside the Old Covenant ceremonial, moral and civil laws,
for the Church cannot have two competing systems.
But notice this important point: It is the WHOLE system of the
Old Covenant that must go, not just a part here or there. Those
who teach that "works of the law" refers only to the ceremonial
law are essentially teaching that only PART of the Old Covenant
was set aside.
What about the ceremonial law? Isn't it true that we are not to
obey the ceremonial law any longer, and didn't Paul make that clear
in, for example, Colossians 2:16; while also teaching in Romans
13:9 that we are to obey the moral laws?
Well, we already answered the "moral law" question
above. We are obeying the principles of the Old
Covenant decalogue, but we are no longer under the Old Covenant
itself.
As for our not obeying the ceremonial laws any longer, that is
true, but it is true in the same way that we are no longer obeying
the moral laws of the Old Covenant. Rather, we are obeying the
principles of the Old Covenant ceremonial laws.
The ceremonial laws we have now are represented by our seven sacraments,
Baptism, Confession, Holy Eucharist, Confirmation, Matrimony, Holy
Orders, and Sacrament of the Sick. Hence, just as the New Covenant
improved on the moral laws of the Old Covenant (i.e., the Sermon
on the Mount), so the New Covenant improved on the ceremonial laws
of the Old Covenant and gave us the sacraments.
Paul summarizes this principle in Romans 7:6:
"But now we have been released from the Law, having died to
that by which we were bound, so that we serve in newness of the
Spirit and not in oldness of the letter."
And he had already introduced it in Romans 6:14:
"For sin shall not be master over you, for you are not under
law but under grace."
Here we see that we have been "released from the Law"
and that we are "not under Law but under grace." This
means that we have been taken out of the whole system of Law (the
ceremonial, civil and moral laws of the Old Covenant) and are now
placed in the system of Grace. In that system Paul tell us that
we are not to function based on the "oldness of the letter"
(which is another way of saying the "letter of the law")
but "we serve in the newness of the Spirit," that is,
the Spirit of God guides our actions. The Spirit takes the principles
of the Law, and infuses them, with Himself, into our being. That
is the power of the New Covenant.
Paul says this best in Romans 8:2,4:
"For the law of the Spirit of life in Christ Jesus has set
you free from the law of sin and of death....so that the requirement
of the Law might be fulfilled in us, who do not walk according to
the flesh but according to the Spirit."
Notice again that we are "free from the Law" yet we must
still fulfill the "requirement of the Law." Why must we
fulfill its requirements? Because, as Paul says in Romans 7:12:
"So then, the Law is holy, and the commandment is holy and
righteous and good."
Every command in the Law is from God and therefore good. So our
behavior must be modeled after the commandments. But we don't follow
the commandments by putting ourselves back into the system of Law;
rather, we take from the Law what is good, and practice it by the
power of the Spirit of God. If we sin, the Spirit can forgive us,
but the Law cannot, and therefore we must never come under the system
of Law, or we will be condemned.
1 2 3
4 5 6
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