In the August 28 issue of The Wanderer, editor of Catholic
Replies, James J. Drummey, received a question from a reader
regarding the biblical passages which state that a woman is
to be in submission to her husband. The reader referred to 1
Peter 3:1 and Ephesians 5:22 and asked: "Please explain how
the Catholic Church interprets these statements." Mr. Drummey
then wrote three paragraphs of explanation, all of which made
reference to the teaching of John Paul II in the 1988 apostolic
letter Mulieris Dignitatem ("The Dignity of Women").
But, as it becomes women professing godliness, with
good works. 11 Let the woman learn in silence with all subjection.
12 But I suffer not a woman to teach, nor to use authority over
the man: but to be in silence. 13 Adam was first formed; then
Eve. 14 And Adam was not seduced; but the woman, being seduced,
was in the transgression. 15 Yet she shall be saved through child
bearing; if she continue in faith and love and sanctification
with sobriety.
As representative of the Church's consensus, Aquinas
understands this passage in the following way:
The Apostle says (1 Corinthians 14:34): 'Let women
keep silence in the churches,' and (1 Timothy 2:12): 'I suffer
not a woman to teach.' Now this pertains especially to the grace
of the word. Therefore the grace of the word is not becoming to
women. I answer that, Speech may be employed in two ways: in one
way privately, to one or a few, in familiar conversation, and
in this respect the grace of the word may be becoming to women;
in another way, publicly, addressing oneself to the whole church,
and this is not permitted to women. First and chiefly, on account
of the condition attaching to the female sex, whereby woman should
be subject to man, as appears from Genesis 3:16 (Summa
Theologica, Question 177, Article 2).
Colossians 3:17-19
All whatsoever you do in word or in work, do all in
the name of the Lord Jesus Christ, giving thanks to God and the
Father by him. 18 Wives, be subject to your husbands, as it behoveth
in the Lord. 19 Husbands, love your wives and be not bitter towards
them.
The tradition of the Church has understood this in the same
way as the above passages. St. John Chrysostom writes:
Wives be subject to your husbands" he writes to wives:
"That is, be subject for God's sake, because this adorns
you, Paul says, not them. For I mean not that subjection which
is due to a master nor yet that alone which is of nature but that
offered for God's sake. (Homilies on Colossians, NPNF1
12:304).
Chrysostom adds that there is great harmony if the husband loves
his wife and the wife is submissive to the husband.
Observe again that Paul has exhorted husbands and wives
to reciprocity...To love therefore, is the husband's part,
to yield pertains to the other side. If, then, each one contributes
his own part, all stand firm. From being loved, the wife too becomes
loving; and from her being submissive, the husband learns to
yield." (Homilies on Colossians, NPNF1 13:304)
Augustine says the same about Col 3:18:
Nor can it be doubted that it is more consonant with
the order of nature that men should bear rule over women than
women over men. It is with this principle in view that the
apostle says, 'The head of the woman is the man' [1 Cor 11:3];
and 'Wives submit yourselves to your own husbands.' (On Marriage
and Concupiscence 1, 9, 10, NPNF1 5:267).
Theodoret says the same on Col 3:18:
Paul is particularly concerned here with believing
women who are married to unbelieving men: thus, their subjection
is in service to the Lord, that is, as the Lord commands."
(Interpretation of the Letter to the Colossians PG 82:621A).
Titus 2:4-5
4 That they may teach the young women to be wise, to
love their husbands, to love their children. 5 To be discreet,
chaste, sober, having a care of the house, gentle, obedient
to their husbands: that the word of God is not blasphemed.
Here the wife is told both to "love" her husband and be "obedient"
to him ("obedient" is the Greek hupotasso, which is also
translated "be in submission" or "be subject," as in all the previous
passages). The wife is to make sure she does these things so that
"the word of God is not blasphemed."
1 Peter 3:1, 5-6
This passage gives even more graphic language regarding the
wife's requirement to be submissive to her husband, using Sarah
as the example par excellence:
In like manner also, let wives be subject to their
husbands: that, if any believe not the word, they may be won
without the word, by the conversation of the wives...5 For after
this manner heretofore, the holy women also who trusted in God
adorned themselves, being in subjection to their own husbands:
6 As Sarah obeyed Abraham, calling him lord: whose daughters
you are, doing well and not fearing any disturbance.
Representing the consensus of the Fathers on 1 Peter 3:1, Tertullian
writes:
Do you go forth (to meet them) already arrayed in the
cosmetics and ornaments of prophets and apostles; drawing your
whiteness from simplicity, your ruddy hue from modesty; painting
your eyes with bashfulness, and your mouth with silence; implanting
in your ears the words of God; fitting on your necks the yoke
of Christ. Submit your head to your husbands, and you will
be enough adorned. (On the Apparel of Women, Ch XIII).
Now, when I find to what God belong these precepts,
whether in their germ or their development, I have no difficulty
in knowing to whom the apostle also belongs. But he declares that
'wives ought to be in subjection to their husbands:' what
reason does he give for this? 'Because,' says he, 'the husband
is the head of the wife.' Pray tell me, Marcion, does your
god build up the authority of his law on the work of the Creator?
This, however, is a comparative trifle; for he actually derives
from the same source the condition of his Christ and his Church;
for he says: 'even as Christ is the head of the Church;' and again,
in like manner: 'He who loves his wife, loves his own flesh, even
as Christ loved the Church. (Tertullian Against Marcion,
Ch XVIII).
Last but not least, there is Ephesians 5:22-33
22 Let women be subject to their husbands, as to the
Lord:
23 Because the husband is the head of the wife, as Christ is the
head of the church. He is the saviour of his body.
24 Therefore as the church is subject to Christ: so also let
the wives be to their husbands in all things.
25 Husbands, love your wives, as Christ also loved the
church and delivered himself up for it:
26 That he might sanctify it, cleansing it by the laver of water
in the word of life:
27 That he might present it to himself, a glorious church, not
having spot or wrinkle or any such thing; but that it should be
holy and without blemish.
28 So also ought men to love their wives as their own bodies.
He that loveth his wife loveth himself.
29 For no man ever hated his own flesh, but nourisheth and cherisheth
it, as also Christ doth the church:
30 Because we are members of his body, of his flesh and of his
bones.
31 For this cause shall a man leave his father and mother: and
shall cleave to his wife. And they shall be two in one flesh.
32 This is a great sacrament: but I speak in Christ and in the
church.
33 Nevertheless, let every one of you in particular love for
his wife as himself: And let the wife fear her husband.
Let's open up the investigation of this passage by asking an
obvious question: If by a reading of Ephesians 5:21 it is concluded
that spouses are required to submit to one another on an equal
basis, then why did St. Paul include the sentence: "Let women
be subject to their husbands" in Ephesians 5:22 if that truth
was already covered in Eph 5:21's statement "Be subject to one
another"? Would it not be superfluous and confusing to specify
only one of the submitting parties (in the very next verse), while
the other spouse receives no such direct command, here or any
other place in Scripture?
Let's look closer at Ephesians 5:22-33 for the answer. The underlined
words show that the wife is told three times to be in subjection
to her husband, while the italicized words show that the husband
is never told to be in subjection to his wife; rather, he is told
three times to love her. Moreover, not only is the wife
told to be submissive, but verse 24 adds that it is to be "in
all things."(4) Could the teaching be any more emphatic? An unbiased
reading of the text clearly shows that not only is the husband's
submission to the wife absent from the context, but the wife's
submission is accentuated in addition to what was originally stated
in Ephesians 5:22! Moreover, St. Paul never confuses love with
submission. The two are kept entirely separate. Hence, the weight
of the context on this issue is absolutely overwhelming.
To Whom Does Ephesians 5:21 Apply?
As noted above, John Paul II claims that Ephesians 5:21 is the
topic sentence for the remainder of the chapter, and thus concludes
that it applies directly to husbands and wives. He neither makes
any acknowledgment that the verse can apply to all Christians,
nor does he posit any distinction between the general submission
required in Ephesians 5:21 with the specific submission required
in Ephesians 5:22-33.
The Fathers of the Church saw Ephesians 5:21 quite differently.
They made the necessary distinction between the context that ends
with Ephesians 5:21 ("Be subject to one another out of reverence
for Christ"), and the context that begins with Ephesians 5:22
("Let women be subject to their husbands").
As representative of their views let's look, for example, at
St. John Chrysostom. Chrysostom ends Homily XIX at Ephesians
5:21, and then begins Homily XX at Ephesians 5:22, thus treating
the two contexts separately and showing that verse 21 is a general
statement for the whole church, in a context that begins as far
back as Ephesians 4:1, a section in which St. Paul does not specifically
address the husband/wife relationship; rather, he speaks to all
the relationships that Christians have in and out of the Church
(e.g., bishop/priest; pastor/parishioner; master/slave, husband/wife).
Ephesians 6:1-9 does the same, and thus the command to "be subject
to one another" is surrounded on all sides by general instructions
for all classes of people.
Theodoret regards the distinction between Ephesians 5:21
and Ephesians 5:22 in the same way, that is, there is a general
law wherein each Christian is to subject himself to the other
as a humble servant (Ephesians 5:21), but the legal specifics
that go beyond the general admonition are covered in the remaining
context (i.e., Ephesians 5:22-6:9):
We must not be submissive to those who command us to
act unlawfully. But to those who call us to live with piety, we
must be subject to one another. Having laid down this general
law of obedience, Paul next advises the Ephesians in detail on
their duties to another. (Commentarius in omnes B. Pauli
Epistolas, 2:33).